That's an excellent question.
My initial reaction is that I would accept that hypothesis, that someone who's a would-be sodomite is more inclined to break the strict sodomy laws. By that I mean if you're sexual inclination is to have anal sex and there's a law that says anal sex is illegal then you are more likely to break that than someone with no interest in anal sex.
But then I'm questioning myself where that reasoning leads.
The above is actually more a question of whether a sodomite is more likely to lose self control than a non-sodomite, leading them to break the law to feed their desire. I don't think being a sodomite makes someone less or more sexually driven, the difference is that the sodomite has a law in place that stops them meeting their desire.
But non-sodomites also have a law in their way. Rape laws prohibit a heterosexual male from feeding their sexual desires by forcing a woman to have sex. Many heterosexual men have partners or have an active sex life while single but there is a significant number of men who are single and don't have active sex lives. So is a single heterosexual male without an active sex life more inclined to rape a woman than a sodomite? Well yes, I would say they are for the same reason above, a sodomite would have no interest in raping a woman.
Now there are many more single men without wild active sex lives than sodomites I think and there are many more single men than maps I think. So assuming single heterosexual men and sodomites are equally sexually driven and have equal self control then overall there is a greater liklihood of women being raped by single heterosexual men than sodomites breaking sodomite laws. So the greatest saving comes from not focusing on sodomites or maps but on single heterosexual men who don't have fulfilling sex lives.