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'It only lists it as a mental illness IF ...'

Posted by Humanist on 2005-March-09 10:48:26 EST, Wednesday
In reply to Actually posted by Lux on 2005-March-09 09:44:44 EST, Wednesday
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Using this line of thought, if the person is not disturbed by his/her sexual orientation to underage people, then the term pedophilia is not approriate, because no paraphilia exists. This person may be properly termed a pedosexual, just as someone else may be homosexual, but is no more a pedophile than that other person is a homophile.

The psychotherapeutic community of which I am a part coined "-philia" long ago to designate "abnormal" sexuality. General usage of this suffix among all the rest of the English-speaking world means sickness and perversion. Only on our own chatboards, where we sit like caterpillars smoking hookahs, does "pedophilia" mean what we say it means.

The gay community successfully rejected and challenged the use of the words "homophile" and "homophilia" in the 1970's. We on the other hand hold onto our terms of perversion and defend them. Go figure.

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