But for the moment let us just accept that the holocaust of the Jews occured in Germany during WW2 as is popularly believed. Ovens, concentration camps, yellow stars, the whole bit.
What did it take to be regarded as a Jew? Was it ones religion or ones blood? Or both or either? If it was a matter of hereditary blood lineage how far back in time would the authorities who decided such matters pursue the history of a persons ( person A) family history? Lets say for instance that a persons mother is German going back at least three generations there is no reason to suspect any Jewish blood in any of her ancestors for at least the three generations known.
Now three generations back on the fathers side it is discovered that his great great grandfather married a Jewish woman and concieved a son who would be the person A's great grandfather. He in turn married a woman of Irish stock and had a son, (person A's grand father) who grew up and married an Italian woman and had a son who is person A's father.
Under National Socialism rules would this small amount of Jewish blood make person "A" a Jew in the eyes of the Nazi's? How about in the popular culture in general in Germany at that time?
In America it was accepted that even one drop of african blood made one a black. Perhaps it is still that way. Similarly their are governmental services designed to help native americans, and native american is defined as those people having a certain percentage of native blood. I think it is at least 1/8th native blood.
Now returning to the example of Nazi's and how much jewish blood makes one a Jew, I can't help but draw a sort of analogy between Jews and Pedophiles in current society. I mean to what extent must one be attracted to lgs to cross the line from "normalacy" into Pedophilia? I have always maintained that some degree of erotic attraction towards pre pubescent children, even if it may be of a more sensual attraction rather than strictly sexual in nature, I believe that to varying degrees an atttraction to children is a natural part of human sexuality , just like most people will accept and admit that they have experienced erotic feelings towards members of the same gender, (homosexual desires) and such feelings are generally regarded as "normal" these days up to a certain degree. When does a person cross the threshold of the limits of normalacy and enter into the realm of having a homosexual orientation? Where is the cut off point?
I also is believe that most people ( if they are honest with themselves) have at times experienced erotic feelings towards pre pubescent children. If that is so then to what level of intensity does this erotic attraction have to rise before one can legitimately refer to oneself or another as having a pedophilc orientation? If it is not determined by intensity of feeling ( a subjective and difficult thing to prove about someone else) would you say that a consistent degree of attraction to prepube children must exist in order to designate oneself or another as a pedophile?
I see people here referring to themselves as pedophiles in the traditional sense of the term, and I see in the media the term pedophile being used all the time to describe someone who has broken some sexual prohibition involving children even though no actual sex may have even occured. So I get confused.
I mean dose everyone who has experienced erotic feelings for children fall into the category of being a pedophile? Is person "A" whose great great grandfather married a Jew really Jewish under the Nazi regime?
I read somewhere recently about concentration camps for pedophiles because one can be locked up in concentrations camp without breaking any law.
Just like the Jews were.
So the issue of the standard of defining what was meant by the term Jew under National Socialism, is relevant, I feel, in todays society for those interested in trying to define what is meant when referring to oneself or to another as a pedophile. And ones future may come to be determined by how society determines what characteristics and to what extent those characteristics are to be used to determine who is or is not a pedophile and who does or does not go into the concentration camp.
I really feel that society is moving in that direction.
If there was an intitive placed on the ballot in the next elections to lock up all those who have been determined as having an erotic attraction to children in concentration camps whether they have ever acted upon that attraction or not, I think that a large segment of the population would vote yes to such a proposal. Maybe not the majority yet but if things keep moving at the speed they are going and the media saturation style extreme and relentless propaganda demonizing minor attracted adults continues to escalate, I say the concentration camps are just around the corner.
This is of course simply specualtion on my part or even a sort of hunch, but I feel like the springs around this issue are getting wound up tighter and tighter against MAAs and that it won't be long until they just snap.
I might be time to simply dissapear. Even though one has done no wrong. Not everyone can be martyrs or heroes.