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Re: Oxford definition (LOL)

Posted by rainbowloom on Friday, December 19 2014 at 09:08:14AM
In reply to Re: No. posted by JackSummer on Friday, December 19 2014 at 04:42:59AM

Used to indicate that a situation is the same as if the hypothetical thing stated were true.

LOL.

The situation = iatrogenic / sociogenic harm.

Hypothetical thing stated = all adult/child sex is abuse.

Does the iatrogenic / sociogenic harm change whether all adult/child sex is abuse or it isn't?

Was my statement still incorrect?

If I believed that the hypothetical thing stated was true, would I bother to use a "might as well" statement, which necessarily considers that thing a hypothetical? Or would that be rather counter-intuitive to the point I'd be trying to make?

Do you still think I am equating abuse and consent, or are you finally going to admit that you pulled that out of your ass?

~

R a i n b o w




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