You're saying he raped her conclusively and prefacing it as an impossibility that they didn't have sex in the first place. I don't know if they had sex to begin with and if they did what level of force and/or coercion was involved. But I have seen some reports that suggest it is possible that the ex-wife came up with these allegations for revenge and could be coercing the daughter into backing her story. I'm not necessarily saying this is the case, but it is a possibility. We shouldn't convict this man based on mere claims alone. Let's see the evidence first.